I am looking at this curious passage in Hebrews :
9 οὐ κατὰ τὴν διαθήκην, ἣν ἐποίησα τοῖς πατράσιν αὐτῶν
ἐν ἡμέρᾳ ἐπιλαβομένου μου τῆς χειρὸς αὐτῶν
ἐξαγαγεῖν αὐτοὺς ἐκ γῆς Αἰγύπτου,
ὅτι αὐτοὶ οὐκ ἐνέμειναν ἐν τῇ διαθήκῃ μου,
κἀγὼ ἠμέλησα αὐτῶν, λέγει κύριος·
It's a quote from Jeremiah but the curious bit is the fact that the bit in bold is in the genitive. I was looking the Greek Parsing tool and found that its Greek does not align with GNT28. Checking the top of the tool it says its based on the KJV which is of course based largely on the TR. Checking the GNT-TRS shows the same wording as above. So I am puzzled by the following :
“in” G1722 ἐν ἐν preposition
“the day” G2250 ἡμέρᾳ ἡμέρα common noun dative feminine singular
“when I” G3450 μου ἐγώ personal pronoun first genitive singular
“took” G1949 ἐπιλαβομένου ἐπιλαμβάνομαι verb second aorist middle participle genitive masculine singular
“them” G0846 τοῖς ὁ definite article dative masculine plural
“by the hand” G5495 χειρὸς χείρ common noun genitive feminine singular
“to lead them” G0846 αὐτῶν αὐτός personal pronoun third genitive masculine plural
Why is the μου before the ἐπιλαβομένου and in particular where the τοις comes from.
It does not appear that the sequence of Strong's keys in this passage in the KJVS matches the sequence in the parsing tool quoted above either.
Anyone know where the Greek in this tool comes from ?