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#1 Ed Cross

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Posted 28 February 2008 - 09:34 AM

This is probably beyond the scope of this discussion forum, but I figured some of you guys would key into this. I don't have all the original language stuff from accordance yet, so maybe some of you could help. The answer may lie outside of anything even available in accordance. My question:

Are there any pre-resurrection greek writings where the word "pascha" is used in reference to anything other than the Jewish passover?

Are there any post-resurrection greek writings where it would be a reference to anything besides the Jewish passover or the Christian resurrection day?

Any help would be appreciated!

Pastor Ed Cross

Edited by Ed Cross, 28 February 2008 - 09:37 AM.


#2 Lorinda H. M. Hoover

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Posted 28 February 2008 - 10:32 AM

Interesting question!

I did a quick check of LXX1 (the Septuagint), with NETS in parallel; all the occurrences of pascha refer to passover. It is the same with GNT-T. I don't have BDAG ore LEH (yet) on Accordance to check there. If I need a break today, I'll look it up in my hard copy of BAGD. I might even run over to the church and check Kittel. We'll see how my time goes.

I don't have any other Greek texts (like Philo, Josephus, etc.).

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Edited by Lorinda H. M. Hoover, 28 February 2008 - 10:33 AM.

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#3 Rick Bennett

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Posted 28 February 2008 - 02:03 PM

Are there any post-resurrection greek writings where it would be a reference to anything besides the Jewish passover or the Christian resurrection day?


Are you looking for a meaning where it refers to the lamb?

I did a search through our Greek texts and there are 10 hits in APOL, 16 PHILO, and 14 in JOSEPH, and 1 in AF. A quick browse looks like they are all related to passover, as in the event. In addition there are a number of hits in the Papyri, and some in inscriptions. One inscription from the 7th Century looked interesting but is likely related to the Christian event. However, it would take more time to individually verify these.

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#4 Ed Cross

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Posted 28 February 2008 - 05:31 PM

Actually, I am looking for anything where it would refer to something outside of Judaism or Christianity.

Pastor Ed Cross

#5 William Varner

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Posted 01 March 2008 - 01:49 PM

The word is what is called a "Septuagintalism." It appeared for the very first time in Exodus 12:12 as the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew "pesach."
It then only appears in Jewish Greek (Philo and Josephus) and in Christian literature thereafter. Its most famous use as a title of a Christian work is that by Melito of Sardis (ca. 175 AD) called "Peri Pascha."

Since then it is used in the Greek Orthodox Church as their term for "Easter."

I am not aware of any use of the word in non-Jewish/Christian literature in any other sense than the above.

I hope this is helpful.

Will

#6 Ed Cross

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Posted 03 March 2008 - 07:10 AM

Thanks Will and All,

I appreciate any efforts that you have put forth to confirm this for me.

Pastor Ed Cross




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