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Masoretic Text Module?


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#1 Justin D. Morgan

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Posted 07 April 2008 - 10:36 PM

Is there a "Masoretic Text" module for Accordance? (I apologize up front if this question is, for a lack of a better way to put it, uneducated.)

#2 Robb Brunansky

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Posted 07 April 2008 - 10:56 PM

You're probably looking for the BHS-W4 module.
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#3 jpkang

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Posted 08 April 2008 - 01:07 AM

Is there a "Masoretic Text" module for Accordance? (I apologize up front if this question is, for a lack of a better way to put it, uneducated.)

For the sake of being more complete, there's also the BHS-GBS module which is part of the German Bible Society's Die Mac Studienbibel CD-ROM, which has the apparatus documenting variant readings, though it is not grammatically tagged (as is the BHS-W4).

Then there are all the other tagged textual witnesses which reduce the value of the apparatus, e.g., the Greek Septuagint, MT/LXX parallels database, Aramaic Targums (more about them), Samaritan Pentateuch, Dead Sea Scrolls Bible, etc.

So, plenty of text and context!
J. P. Kang, Ph.D. (Bible)

#4 Alistair

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Posted 08 April 2008 - 04:56 PM

It is my understanding that there is no one Massoretic text (OT) in the same way as there is no one Received text (NT), but rather these are textual families or textual traditions that include some (or many) variations within the various MSS. Can anyone comment? Thanks!

#5 Ron Bailey

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Posted 02 July 2008 - 03:13 PM

There is an interesting article entitled The Transmission of the Hebrew Text on Michael Marlowe's Bible Researcher website which may help.
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#6 Alistair

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Posted 02 July 2008 - 05:32 PM

Thanks! That's a interesting article that I will read again properly, but my first impression from a provisional scan-through is that it contains a contradiction.

From the final paragraph:

It does appear that we may rightfully say that the singular care and providence of God has kept the text of our Old Testament in an essentially and remarkably pure condition. We may agree with Green that no other work of ancient times has been transmitted as accurately as the Old Testament has been. And we can be grateful that, along with our Hebrew texts, the care and providence of God have provided versions and other aids for the important and necessary work of textual criticism.

This seems to contradict the very point it is trying to defend:

“The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old), and the New Testament in Greek (which, at the time of the writing of it, was most generally known to the nations), being immediately inspired by God, and, by His singular care and providence, kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentical; so as, in all controversies of religion, the Church is finally to appeal unto them.”

"Essentially pure" or "remarkably pure" is not in fact the same as "pure", purity understood as 100% accuracy as implied by the Westminster Confession.

If we reject verbal inspiration then the variant readings don't matter as long as the sense is transmitted accurately.
If we affirm verbal inspiration then textual criticism becomes infinitely more important, even to the degree of matters of defective or plene. For in every case one reading must be the inspired word of God, and every other reading or variant isn't.

I'll read it through again later and post my comments, but I have a sneaking suspicion I'll be slapped down for transgressing the forum guidelines, if I haven't done so already. :( So to keep it relevant, can anyone recommend any Accordance-related resources that would shed light on the subject or support the affirmation (1) that the text of the autographa has been transmitted in "purity", understood as 100% reproduction of the documents as first written, and (2) what that text actually is, understood that it is not contained in any one single manuscript?

Thanks again!!

#7 Helen Brown

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Posted 03 July 2008 - 03:09 AM

I'll read it through again later and post my comments, but I have a sneaking suspicion I'll be slapped down for transgressing the forum guidelines, if I haven't done so already. :( So to keep it relevant, can anyone recommend any Accordance-related resources that would shed light on the subject or support the affirmation (1) that the text of the autographa has been transmitted in "purity", understood as 100% reproduction of the documents as first written, and (2) what that text actually is, understood that it is not contained in any one single manuscript?

I am afraid that you have already strayed outside the forum guidelines.

I do not think that there are Accordance resources that deal directly with this topic, but am willing to be corrected. Please take the discussion of the topic of inspiration to another, more appropriate, forum. Suggestions for resources or websites that do relate to this topic are welcome here.
Helen Brown
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