Acts 3:20 variant
#1
Posted 12 November 2011 - 01:48 PM
I was reading Acts 3 this morning and found a variant not discussed in Metzger's Commentary, in Comfort's Commentary, in the NET Notes, or in either of my hard copies of the NT (UBS4 & NA27). What I found discussed was the word order at the end of the verse, but not the difference in the participle. Additionally, the Comfort Commentary has the the GNT-T participle instead of the GNT-TR participle in the comments about the TR. What's going on here? I am not a scholar, only a student. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Screen shots included. (Comfort also mistranslates the GNT-T participle.)
Thanks,
Julia
#2
Posted 12 November 2011 - 02:11 PM
Hey –
I was reading Acts 3 this morning and found a variant not discussed in Metzger's Commentary, in Comfort's Commentary, in the NET Notes, or in either of my hard copies of the NT (UBS4 & NA27). What I found discussed was the word order at the end of the verse, but not the difference in the participle. Additionally, the Comfort Commentary has the the GNT-T participle instead of the GNT-TR participle in the comments about the TR. What's going on here? I am not a scholar, only a student. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Screen shots included. (Comfort also mistranslates the GNT-T participle.)
Thanks,
Julia
Ah, you've come across a classic example of the various ways words are represented according the sounds that one hears. Whether a variant garners discussion by a Textual Critic is a matter of judgment of the Textual Critic. Most often these variants are discussed in the introduction to the Apparatus (e.g., the phonology of /e/ with /ei/). Hence, the Textual Critic will rarely discuss these occurrences (and some diplomatic editions), or even consider them as variants to be listed in the critical app. the CNTTS apparatus is a good apparatus to have (as well as the GNT-Images series) to locate these types of variants.
#3
Posted 12 November 2011 - 04:04 PM
Julia
#4
Posted 12 November 2011 - 04:22 PM
Thanks, Dr. Tucker. The two verbs may have a similar sound, but don't have the a similar meaning. At the same time, there is no big theological issue that hangs on one vs. the other. I'm debating whether or not to purchase CNTTS. As I said, I'm a student, not a scholar (and not a young one). I teach Sunday school. I don't, and never will, preach. However, I have audited Greek for the last 3-1/2 years (and done all the work) because I want to understand my Bible better, and because I want to be a better teacher. It's hard to decide where, financially, to draw the line to satisfy my desire for an explanation when differences like this arise.
Julia
Indeed, this is a good case to demonstrate where a difference in sound also entails a difference in meaning. Most of the examples such as this don't create an ambiguity in the reading.
If you do decide to purchase the CNTTS, I think you can learn a great deal from the data. It's primarily a Textual Critical Tool, but often times textual criticism extends, or even relies upon, historical linguistics. Perhaps a family member could give it to you as a Christmas present.
Kudos on your teaching and greek endeavors!
#5
Posted 12 November 2011 - 10:04 PM
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