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Searching for a particular predicate and its subject


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#1 Lyndon Drake

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Posted 22 January 2013 - 08:41 PM

Hi,

 

I'm trying to do a Hebrew search for a particular predicate where the subject of the predicate is a particular noun, e.g. phrases where יהוה is the subject of אמר. I've been trying to create a Hebrew Construct search to do this, but have got nowhere. I realise it must be very simple, but I wonder if someone could show me an example?

 

Lyndon



#2 Robert Holmstedt

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Posted 22 January 2013 - 10:19 PM

Good question. Thanks for asking it.

 

The search is fairly simple to build, although I did make the mistake of using "0-אמר" instead of "1-אמר" in my first search and there were no hits. When I switched to "1-אמר," it worked flawlessly. Kudos once again to Roy Brown for the programming!

 

Below is the search I set up and two sets of hits -- the first without the "search both directions" box checked (so that the hits are only Subject-Verb -- the order I constructed the search; you could flip it, if you wanted); the second with the "search both directions" box checked (so the hits are both Subject-Verb and Verb-Subject).

 

Have fun.

 

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Edited by Robert Holmstedt, 22 January 2013 - 10:20 PM.

Associate Professor, Ancient Hebrew and Northwest Semitic Languages
Dept. of Near and Middle Eastern Civilizations
The University of Toronto
blog: ancienthebrewgrammar.wordpress.com

#3 Lyndon Drake

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Posted 22 January 2013 - 10:40 PM

Perfect — I was on a similar track but that does exactly what I wanted. Thanks!



#4 luoar

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Posted 28 February 2013 - 11:56 AM

What does "to say אמר-0" stand for?



#5 Ken Simpson

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Posted 28 February 2013 - 03:50 PM

H Raoul,

אמר is the Hebrew for "to speak or say" and the 0 suffix shows that it's a Aramaic root rather than the Hebrew root (which is usually 1-)

 

for אמר there is a 2- as well. It means "antlers" and a 3- meaning little lamb

 

Is that what you're asking? They are homographs, but different words (the aramaic is pointed differently to the Hebrew even though it has the same meaning.)


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#6 Helen Brown

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Posted 01 March 2013 - 01:55 AM

Yes, all Aramaic lemmas are distinguished with -0. Hebrew or Greek lemmas are only marked with -1, -2 etc. if there are homographs.

 

When you search for just the leamma you get them all, if you add the homograph marker you get just that meaning, and if you add the equal sign you get the exact form of the lemma including vowelling. This is mainly important in Hebrew where verb lemmas are unvowelled, and need to be distinguished from identical looking nouns or other parts of speech.


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#7 luoar

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Posted 01 March 2013 - 02:53 AM

This is precisely the answer I what I was looking for. Thank you.

 

Yes, all Aramaic lemmas are distinguished with -0. Hebrew or Greek lemmas are only marked with -1, -2 etc. if there are homographs.

 

When you search for just the leamma you get them all, if you add the homograph marker you get just that meaning, and if you add the equal sign you get the exact form of the lemma including vowelling. This is mainly important in Hebrew where verb lemmas are unvowelled, and need to be distinguished from identical looking nouns or other parts of speech.






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