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Immanuel Isaiah 8:10 el original language Hebrew Word Search Help ignorant

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#1 Getinthebible

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Posted 16 February 2013 - 09:22 PM

Thanks for the education.

 

I am currently an English only user.  I am struggling with a problem that is most likely answered easily by a Hebrew student.   In Isaiah 7:14, 8:8 there is a name "Immanuel".  In Isaiah 8:10 I see what appears to me to be the exact same two words (with, suffix us, and god).  They are different when the instant details scroll over them the first two are "Immanuel" the last is "with us God".  I am using the BHS-W4 tagged text 

 

The question comes when I search by selecting the words in Isaiah 8:10 and then copying and pasting into the search bar.  The results are Isaiah 7:14, 8:8.  Not what I expected, I do not even get the verse that I copied from.

 

When I separate the phrase into its parts I get Isaiah 8:10 as well as many many more results, but not Isaiah 7:14, 8:8.  This is again not what I expected.

 

I am sure that someone who knows Hebrews can explain this to me.  Thank you for the education.  

 

To be more specific;

 

1. How do we know when form a name and when they don't?  (Context is my guess)

 

2. Why am I not getting expected results?

 

Thanks



#2 James Tucker

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Posted 16 February 2013 - 10:39 PM

Good question.

 

The simple answer is because the occurrence in 7:14 is tagged differently than the occurrence in 8:10. Since they are tagged differently, Accordance constructs the inflected form search differently.

 

To answer your more specific questions:

 

1. If you have HALOT, you can see that it lists the 7:14 occurrences as a lexical entry (a proper name). It's not a clear cut case whether this occurrence is a proper nominalized form of a idiom or the idiom itself. Your secondary resources should point this out. It's interesting to point out, however, that the LXX takes 7:14 as a proper name, but translates 8:10(8) as an idiom. This would lean more towards tagging it as a proper name. (cf. Matt. 1:23; where the Gospel writer seems to provide a midrash on the name).

 

EDIT: Just did some more thumbing around in the ancient versions, for I was curious why the gospel writer of Matthew, supposedly writing to a Hebrew audience, senses the need to provide an interpretation. It's interesting to note that the Targum takes 7:14 as a proper name, but does not do so in 8:10. However, Syriac takes both to be a proper name. The vulgate follows the same lines as the Targum.

 

2. You are not getting the expected results because of the tagging and inflected forms.


Edited by James Tucker, 16 February 2013 - 10:59 PM.






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