This might be a dumb question but why is LORD (in all caps) void of an underlying word?

[rpavich]

Searching through the KJVS for "LORD" reveals a few hits but I noticed that there is no underlying word that it comes from?

 

I'm not the sharpest tool in the shed, just a hobbyist so any help on why would be appreciated.

 

[Peter Brylov Christensen]

In both cases the subject is implicit in the Hebrew text, but in the KJV the subject is made explicit:

 

 

Deut. 33:12 - "Concerning Benjamin he said: "The beloved of the Lord shall dwell in safety because of him - covering for him every day" (BHS)

 

1. Sam 3:17 - "And he said: What is the word he spoke unto you?" (BHS)

 

 

With kind regards

 

Peter Christensen

[rpavich]

In both cases the subject is implicit in the Hebrew text, but in the KJV the subject is made explicit:

 

 

Deut. 33:12 - "Concerning Benjamin he said: "The beloved of the Lord shall dwell in safety because of him - covering for him every day" (BHS)

 

1. Sam 3:17 - "And he said: What is the word he spoke unto you?" (BHS)

 

 

With kind regards

 

Peter Christensen

Thanks very much, that's interesting.

[Peter Brylov Christensen]

Oh, indeed. That's why I started studying theology in the first place. I was (and still am) skeptical of how the various Bible translations choose to render the Greek and Hebrew texts, so I wanted to see for myself what the texts really "looked" like.

Edited January 14, 2015 by Pchris

[jeremyduncan]

It's similar to how the KJV uses "God save the King" or "God forbid" in many places even though "God" has no underlying Hebrew word. It was a commonly understood phrase and helped people understand what the translators thought there text was attempting to communicate.

[Lorinda H. M. Hoover]

Also, notice how LORD is in italics in both of those verses. The KJV translators put in italics any English words that didn't have direct Hebrew or Greek counterparts in the verse being translated.

[rpavich]

Thanks again everyone! Good food for thought.