Λύχνις Δαν Posted January 17, 2015 Share Posted January 17, 2015 Hey ya, I really just looking for a second pair of eyes on this one. I believe this is an error in the Rahlf's tagging and have reported a correction but that's rather a one way channel and I am trying to get through a translation on this so if anyone has an opinion on this I'd be grateful. In Psa. 9:32 we have : 32 εἶπεν γὰρ ἐν καρδίᾳ αὐτοῦ Ἐπιλέλησται ὁ θεός, Now the word in bold is tagged : Ἐπιλέλησται Epilelēstai ἐπιλανθάνομαι (ἐπί, λανθάνω) epilanthanomai (epi, lanthanō) Verb 1 sing perf mid indic to forget-- It's a second perfect but I believe it should be a 3rd singular not a 1st. Am I missing something ? Thanx for your time Thx D Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Λύχνις Δαν Posted January 17, 2015 Author Share Posted January 17, 2015 Don't worry - silly question - I should have a little more faith in my opinion sometimes - not too much mind The same form appears in Wis. 16:23 and there it is tagged as a 3rd. Thx D Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Abram K-J Posted January 17, 2015 Share Posted January 17, 2015 Yes, it is a tagging error. The Göttingen Psalms text has it as third person. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Λύχνις Δαν Posted January 17, 2015 Author Share Posted January 17, 2015 Thanx for the confirmation Abram. Thx D Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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