Many thanx on the ὁ δέ explanation. I didn't reply immediately as I wanted to go to the grammars and such and have a look. BDF makes this interesting observation :
1 Clem 50.3, 63.2 has ὅδε correctly, but ἣ δέ is to be written rather than ἥδε in 12.4 (anacoluthon following a gen. absol.; cf. §468(3)).—Ὅδε is rare also in the pap. (it is not found in i BC): Mayser I2 2, 66; II 1, 73f.—Rob. 696f.
F. Blass, A. Debrunner, and Robert W. Funk, A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, Accordance electronic ed. (Chicago: The University of Chicago Press, 1961), 151.
Bold is mine above.
This would appear to be the same phenomenon.
Now going back to the NT, where many instances of ὁ δέ occur. Taking one more or less at random as an example then :
Μαθθαῖον 2·14 ὁ δὲ ἐγερθεὶς παρέλαβεν τὸ παιδίον καὶ τὴν μητέρα αὐτοῦ νυκτὸς καὶ ἀνεχώρησεν εἰς Αἴγυπτον,
one sees such translations as (again bold is mine):
“So Joseph got up, took the Child and His mother, and came into the land of Israel.”
(Matthew 2:21 New American Standard Bible Update)
“And he rose and took the child and his mother by night and departed to Egypt”
(Matthew 2:14 The Holy Bible, English Standard Version)
“Then Joseph got up, took the child and his mother by night, and went to Egypt,”
(Matthew 2:14 New Revised Standard Version of the Bible)
all of which appear to handle δε as a post-positive connective but in
“When he arose, he took the young child and his mother by night, and departed into Egypt:”
(Matthew 2:14 King James Version)
“Who arose, and took the child and his mother by night, and retired into Egypt: and he was there until the death of Herod:”
(Matthew 2:14 Douay-Rheims Bible)
which would appear to handle the δε in the way you have it tagged in the syntax, if one accepts the 'When' as coming from the participle.
Based on your explanation above then, I would assume that the KJV/ Douay translations better capture ο δε than the NAS, NRSV, an ESV, at least as far as the syntax goes. Would you agree ?
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