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Hebrew Syntax - [Unknown]?


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#1 Martin Zhang

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Posted 19 January 2017 - 01:34 PM

What does this mean?

I can imagine that the "samek" is mysterious.

But what about the "waw" and the "mem"?

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#2 Robert Holmstedt

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Posted 19 January 2017 - 09:20 PM

We use the "Unknown" label almost exclusively in the yet-to-appear Inscriptions and DSS databases. But we use it twice in the Hebrew Bible. First, In Exod 12.41, the ויהי is truly anomalous, and so I've tentatively tagged it as "unknown". And in Ezra 8.3, the entire prepositional phrase (we've included the ס) is a rare totally unattached sentence fragment. All commentators emend. But we don't do that i the database. Normally, we find some way to tag the text of the MT as it stands (though we have plenty of notes indicating better solutions that depart from the MT). But in this case, the verse break and the setumah make it hard to do much else with it.


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#3 Michel Gilbert

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Posted 19 January 2017 - 09:28 PM

I like, "All commentators emend. But we don't do that in the database. Normally, we find some way to tag the text of the MT as it stands (though we have plenty of notes indicating better solutions that depart from the MT)."

 

(I emended "i" to "in")


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#4 Martin Zhang

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Posted 19 January 2017 - 11:45 PM

We use the "Unknown" label almost exclusively in the yet-to-appear Inscriptions and DSS databases. But we use it twice in the Hebrew Bible. First, In Exod 12.41, the ויהי is truly anomalous, and so I've tentatively tagged it as "unknown". And in Ezra 8.3, the entire prepositional phrase (we've included the ס) is a rare totally unattached sentence fragment. All commentators emend. But we don't do that i the database. Normally, we find some way to tag the text of the MT as it stands (though we have plenty of notes indicating better solutions that depart from the MT). But in this case, the verse break and the setumah make it hard to do much else with it.

Thanks for the explanation. I understand the situation now.

Looks like in Ezra 8:3 a name is missing after the prepositional phrase (compare with the patterns in the previous verses).

the NIV just leave it that way. I see some translations ignore the setumah, and equate the phrase with the following one. But I feel more probably, there is a name missing. (not sure how Aleppo looks like here?)

 

For Exodus 12:41, isn't it normal to repeat ויהי when מִקֵּץ֙ שְׁלֹשִׁ֣ים שָׁנָ֔ה וְאַרְבַּ֥ע מֵא֖וֹת שָׁנָ֑ה and בְּעֶ֙צֶם֙ הַיּ֣וֹם הַזֶּ֔ה refer to the same day? Although without it, it is easier to see them in apposition. But I feel it doesn't hurt to add ויהי.

 

Thanks a lot!


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#5 Robert Holmstedt

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Posted 20 January 2017 - 08:52 AM

On Exod 12:41, there are a few (and I mean 3 or 4) other somewhat strange ויהי in the entire HB, but this is the only one so out of place as this.


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