I am reading Luke and ran across this in Luke 20:19 which reads :
Καὶ ἐζήτησαν οἱ γραμματεῖς καὶ οἱ ἀρχιερεῖς ἐπιβαλεῖν ἐπ᾿ αὐτὸν τὰς χεῖρας ἐν αὐτῇ τῇ ὥρᾳ, καὶ ἐφοβήθησαν τὸν λαόν, ἔγνωσαν γὰρ ὅτι πρὸς αὐτοὺς εἶπεν τὴν παραβολὴν ταύτην.
Now the portion I've put in bold, καὶ ἐφοβήθησαν τὸν λαόν, looks to me like a parenthetical to me. Yet in the syntax chart it is modelled like this as a simple clause:
Luke20_19.JPG 39.79KB 1 downloads
Any thoughts on why this is so ?
I see that English translations handle it somewhat variably, with KJV treating it is though the reason for their fear was ἔγνωσαν γὰρ ὅτι πρὸς αὐτοὺς εἶπεν τὴν παραβολὴν ταύτην, leading to a translation "Luke 20:19 And the chief priests and the scribes the same hour sought to lay hands on him; and they feared the people: for they perceived that he had spoken this parable against them." though in this case I would probably have used "but" instead of "and". In the NET bible they pulled the entire clause out and put it at the end "But they were afraid of the people.", removing any trace of its possible parenthetical nature. On the other hand BHGNT on Luke says that the και here begins a parenthetical and they leave it inline bookended with '-'.
Thoughts or comments ?
The more I look at it the more I think it hinges on how you read the 'γαρ', and whether you think it subordinates the following clause to the first or second of the preceding clauses.