Ιακοβ Posted October 6, 2018 Share Posted October 6, 2018 Ἰακὼβ δὲ ἠγάπα τὸν Ἰωσὴφ παρὰ πάντας τοὺς υἱοὺς αὐτοῦ, ὅτι υἱὸς γήρους ἦν αὐτῷ· ἐποίησεν δὲ αὐτῷ χιτῶνα ποικίλον. Does anyone know why ἠγάπα is first person singular here? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Λύχνις Δαν Posted October 6, 2018 Share Posted October 6, 2018 It's not - It's a third singular imperfect. There is no ending in the secondary third sg and the connecting ε ִcontracts with the preceding α leading to this form. Thx D 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Abram K-J Posted October 6, 2018 Share Posted October 6, 2018 Göttingen Genesis has it parsed in Instant Details as first person, too, just as the LXX+GNT text does (mentioned by original post). Rahlfs has it correctly as third person. A good correction to report. (Genesis 25:28 has the same parsing issue... and searching on the inflected form shows about a dozen other cases where this could be an issue.) 2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Λύχνις Δαν Posted October 7, 2018 Share Posted October 7, 2018 Ah I see now - I don't actually have that. It's a combined of Swete and GNT. I guess Swete might also be wrong then. Thx D 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ιακοβ Posted October 7, 2018 Author Share Posted October 7, 2018 It's not - It's a third singular imperfect. There is no ending in the secondary third sg and the connecting ε ִcontracts with the preceding α leading to this form. Thanks, That’s why I am asking the question. (Pastor was quoting from this this morning and this little puzzle completely distracted me from the sermon Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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