In this morning's sermon (streamed live), our pastor pointed out that ἁπλοῦς could be translated single also (meaning in context, I think, focused on one thing? Or healthy, sound, clear). Anyway, after the service, I did some digging a found that ἁπλοῦς is used only 2x in the NT: Mt 6:22 and it's parallel, Lk 11:34.
Out of curiousity, I checked its use in the LXX – there was only one: Pr 11:25. I tried to determine from which Hebrew word ἁπλοῦς had been translated. The cross-highlighting indicated the pual participle of דָּשֵׁן. To double check, I ran a search for דָּשֵׁן in the MT – there were no occurrences in Pr 11:25. I then searched for בְּרָכָה, which does occur in Pr 11:25. Given this result, I did a merge of the two searches using the MT-LXX and it yielded ἁπλοῦς as translating בְּרָכָה.
Something is obviously wrong. Both results cannot be right. Looking at the English translations of the LXX (Brenton, NETS, & SAAS), it seems to make more sense that ἁπλοῦς translates דָּשֵׁן and εὐλογουμένη translates בְּרָכָה. That makes sense of the English translations of the LXX.
Any ideas? This is a curiosity, not a doctrinal crisis. We do have an error somewhere, or perhaps just a difference of opinion?
Thanks. I'm interested in your theories.