Lyndon Drake Posted January 23, 2013 Share Posted January 23, 2013 Hi, I'm trying to do a Hebrew search for a particular predicate where the subject of the predicate is a particular noun, e.g. phrases where יהוה is the subject of אמר. I've been trying to create a Hebrew Construct search to do this, but have got nowhere. I realise it must be very simple, but I wonder if someone could show me an example? Lyndon Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robert Holmstedt Posted January 23, 2013 Share Posted January 23, 2013 (edited) Good question. Thanks for asking it. The search is fairly simple to build, although I did make the mistake of using "0-אמר" instead of "1-אמר" in my first search and there were no hits. When I switched to "1-אמר," it worked flawlessly. Kudos once again to Roy Brown for the programming! Below is the search I set up and two sets of hits -- the first without the "search both directions" box checked (so that the hits are only Subject-Verb -- the order I constructed the search; you could flip it, if you wanted); the second with the "search both directions" box checked (so the hits are both Subject-Verb and Verb-Subject). Have fun. Edited January 23, 2013 by Robert Holmstedt Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lyndon Drake Posted January 23, 2013 Author Share Posted January 23, 2013 Perfect — I was on a similar track but that does exactly what I wanted. Thanks! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tebel Posted February 28, 2013 Share Posted February 28, 2013 What does "to say אמר-0" stand for? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ken Simpson Posted February 28, 2013 Share Posted February 28, 2013 H Raoul, אמר is the Hebrew for "to speak or say" and the 0 suffix shows that it's a Aramaic root rather than the Hebrew root (which is usually 1-) for אמר there is a 2- as well. It means "antlers" and a 3- meaning little lamb Is that what you're asking? They are homographs, but different words (the aramaic is pointed differently to the Hebrew even though it has the same meaning.) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Helen Brown Posted March 1, 2013 Share Posted March 1, 2013 Yes, all Aramaic lemmas are distinguished with -0. Hebrew or Greek lemmas are only marked with -1, -2 etc. if there are homographs. When you search for just the leamma you get them all, if you add the homograph marker you get just that meaning, and if you add the equal sign you get the exact form of the lemma including vowelling. This is mainly important in Hebrew where verb lemmas are unvowelled, and need to be distinguished from identical looking nouns or other parts of speech. 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tebel Posted March 1, 2013 Share Posted March 1, 2013 This is precisely the answer I what I was looking for. Thank you. Yes, all Aramaic lemmas are distinguished with -0. Hebrew or Greek lemmas are only marked with -1, -2 etc. if there are homographs. When you search for just the leamma you get them all, if you add the homograph marker you get just that meaning, and if you add the equal sign you get the exact form of the lemma including vowelling. This is mainly important in Hebrew where verb lemmas are unvowelled, and need to be distinguished from identical looking nouns or other parts of speech. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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